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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 17.06.2025 06:09

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

You'll usually find your answer there.

Democrat voters, why are you so naive, easy to manipulate, can't see a liar standing right in front of you and why won't you research your party? You will find they have a plan for all W. Nations and it's evil.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Can the belief of not worshipping Christ held by Jehovah's Witnesses be disproven using scripture alone?

There's no rule.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

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If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.